Matrix Personnel Service, Inc.
Basic Medication Administration Test

1.Which of these abbreviations indicates that a drug is to be administered at regularly spaced intervals during each 24 hour period?
A. q 12h
B. qid
C. q 6h, prn
 
2. How many milligrams are equivalent to 0.045 grams?
A. 4.5
B. 45
C. 450
 
3. Which of these doses is the smallest?
A. 0.1 gm
B. 0.01 mg
C. 10 mg
 
4. A child is to receive amoxicillin (Amoxil) 60 mg po. The medication is supplied as an oral suspension containing 125 mg per 5 ml. How many milliliters should the child receive?
A. 1.2
B. 2.4
C. 25
 
5. A patient is to receive cephalexin (Keflex) 1 gm po. Keflex is available as 250 mg tablets. How many tablets should be administered?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
 
6. A patient is to receive cynacobalamin (Vitamin B12) 30 mcg IM. Vitamin B12 is available in 100 mcg per ml. How many milliliters should be administered?
A. 0.1
B. 0.3
C. 3.0
 
7. Penicillin G sodium for injection contains 250,000 units per milliliter. How many units would there be in 2.5 ml?
A. 575,000
B. 625,000
C. 675,000
 
8. A patient is to receive meperidine (Demerol) hydrochloride 75 mg and atropine sulfate 0.3 mg IM preoperatively. Demerol is available in a prepackaged syringe containing 100 mg per ml. Atropine is available in a vial containing 0.4 mg per ml. If the two drugs were combined in the same syringe for administration, how many milliliters would be given?
A. 1.05
B. 1.5
C. 2.0
 
9. A patient is to receive 500 ml of IV fluids in 3 hours. The infusion pump should be set to deliver how many milliliters per hour?
A. 83
B. 128
C. 167
 
10. A patient is to receive 300 ml of IV fluid during a two and one-half hour period. The intravenous setup delivers 15 drops per ml. The drip mechanism should be regulated to deliver approximately how many drops per minute?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
 
11. A patient is to receive 1,000 ml of IV solution over 8 hours. Four hours later, 620 ml remain. The infusion set delivers 15 drops per ml. To receive the remaining fluid within the prescribed time period, the set should deliver how many drops per minute?
A. 39
B. 62
C. 100
 
12. A patient is to receive gentamicin sulfate (Geramycin) 75 mg IV in 100 ml diluent over one hour. The intravenous setup delivers 60 drops per milliliter. How many drops per minute should the patient receive?
A. 60
B. 75
C. 100
 
13.  A patient is to receive digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.35 mg. IV. Lanoxin is available in a prepackaged syringe containing 0.5 mg per 2 ml. How many milliliters should be administered?
A. 0.75
B. 1.25
C. 1.40
 
14.  Which of these is a major principle of pain management and should guide nursing action when administering prescribed analgesics to patients?
A. The patient in pain is the authority about the pain experience.
B. The patient with acute pain experiences more pain than one with chronic pain.
C. The patient with psychogenic pain does not experience real pain.
 
15. An older adult patient who is receiving a large volume intravenous infustion of 5% glucose in water develops Tachycardia and dyspnea. Which of these nursing actions is indicated first?
A. Check the infustion site for signs of infiltration.
B. Decrease the rate of infusion.
C. Monitor oral fluid intake.
 
16.  Which of these ideas should be included in the instructions given to a patient who is taking an antihypertensive drug such as atenolol (Tenormin)?
A. If dizziness occurs as a side effect, schedule drug administration to allow for a half hour rest period after ingestion.
B. Should any dizziness occur, skip the next dose of the drug to determine if it is drug related.
C. Report any dizziness, as a dosage change may be indicated.
 
17.  A patient diagnosed with hypothyroidism is started on levothyroxine sodium (Synthroid) daily. At which of these times should Synthroid be scheduled for administration?
A. Before Breakfast
B. With Lunch
C. At Bedtime
 
18.  A patient is receiving aminophylline IV for treatment of bronchospasm. In addition to respiratory rate and volume, which of these assessments is essential?
A. Temperature
B. Pulse Rate
C. Urinary Output
 
19. A major advantage of the patient controlled analgesia (PCA) pump is that:
A. The nurse’s assessments of the patient’s pain can be safely performed at less frequent intervals.
B. The nurse and the patient are provided with a record of how much medication is used.
C. The patient’s pain relief is more sustained.
 
20. A patient has an order for acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin) 0.6 gm po q 4h prn for temperature of 102 F (39 C) or greater. The patient;s temperature at 8am is 102.4 F (39.1 C) and the nurse administers Aspirin. It is essential for the nurse to record the time of the Aspirin administration and the
A. Patient’s temperature at 9am.
B. Expected outcome of the medication.
C. Patient’s pulse and blood pressure.
 
21.  A patient’s family member requests that the patient be given a prescribed narcotic analgesic. The nurse prepares the medication for administration but the patient refuses to take it. Which of these actions by the nurse would be appropriate?
A. Encourage the patient to reconsider taking the medication.
B. Label the medication and replace it for use at a later time.
C. Discard the medication in the presence of a witness and chart the action.
 
22.  When administering a medication to a patient via nasogastric tube, the nurse should take which of these actions?
A. Depress the bulb of the syringe to facilitate the flow of the medication.
B. Avoid the addition of water into the syringe to prevent unnecessary dilution of the medication.
C. Hold the syringe high enough to allow the medication to flow in by gravity.
 
23. Which of these steps is appropriate when administering heparin sodium subcutaneously?
A. Use a 22-gauge, 1-inch needle when preparing the injection.
B. Aspirate after insertion to check for entry into a blood vessel.
C. Apply gentle pressure to injection site for 5 to 10 seconds without message.
 
24.  When administering eye drops to a patient, the nurse should place the medication in the lower conjunctival sac to:
A. Reduce systemic absorption of the medication.
B. Increase circulation to the area.
C. Prevent injury to the cornea.
 
25.  A patient is to receive 20 units of isophane (NPH) insulin and 10 units of insulin injection (Regular Insulin). Which of these techniques should the nurse use when preparing the injection?
A. Draw up each insulin in a separate syringe.
B. Withdraw the NPH insulin first and then the Regular Insulin in the same syringe.
C. Withdraw the Regular Insulin first and then the NPH insulin in the same syringe.
 
26.  The nurse is preparing to administer antibiotic drops in an adult patient’s left ear. In which of these positions should the patient be placed?
A. High-Fowlers
B. Right side-lying
C. Prone
 
27.  A patient is to take prednisone 10 mg po qid. The nurse should schedule this medication to be administered:
A. Before meals and at bedtime
B. Every six hours
C. After meals and at bedtime
 
28.  When a patient is receiving morphine sulfate for pain control, the patient is likely to have:
A. A hyperactive cough reflex
B. Decreased intestinal mobility
C. A widening pulse pressure
 
29.  Antibiotic therapy should be carried out for the prescribed length of time for which of these reasons:
A. To prevent the occurrence of superinfection
B. To encourage the development of antibodies
C. To eradicate the targeted organism
 
30.  A patient who is taking gentamicin sulfate (Geramycin) should be assessed for:
A. Acoustic nerve damage
B. Hypertension
C. Hypoglycemia
 
31.  Lidocaine (Xylocaine) hydrochloride is used therapeutically to:
A. Induce alterations in the autonomic regulation of the heart
B. Slow myocardial muscle cell repolarization
C. Control ventricular irritability
 
32.  Which of these drugs may be used in conjunction with the antipsychotic drugs, such as fluphenazine hydrocholoride (Prolixin) and haloperidol (Haldol), to relieve the extrapyramidal side effects of the antipsychotics?
A. Levodopa (Larodopa)
B. Benztropine Mesylate (Cogentin)
C. Methocarbamol (Robaxin)
 
33.  When anticonvulsive medications such as phenytoin (Dilantin) sodium are stopped abruptly, the patient is at risk for the development of:
A. A severe hypoglycemic reaction
B. A cerebral vascular occlusion
C. Status epilepticus

 

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